This topic focuses on Arab Orthopaedic Board MCQs - Part 31, Practice Arab Orthopaedic Board MCQs Part 31. Review orthopedic surgery questions 1501 to 1550 for your board exam preparation.
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Question 1
The Figure below shows the radiograph of a 14-year-old boy who has been treated in the past for Perthes’ disease with an abduction brace. He now has hip pain that limits his activity, and nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drugs have failed to provide relief. What is the most appropriate treatment?
Question 2
A newborn girl is referred for evaluation of suspected hip instability. What information from her history would place her in the highest risk category?
Question 3
A 4-year-old child was born with bilateral congenital radial clubhands. Which of the following associated conditions is a contraindication to centralization of the hands on the ulna?
Question 4
A 7-year-old boy with spastic diplegia is a limited community ambulator. He has a moderately severe crouched gait. The parents request a treatment that will result in a permanent decrease in lower extremity muscle tone. This is best accomplished with:
Question 5
Where is the most common site for tuberculosis (TB) spondylitis in children?
Question 6
What is the most important sign of impending modulation with rapid progression of a spinal deformity in neurofibromatosis?
Question 7
A 6-year-old child has a fixed flexion deformity of the interphalangeal (IP) joint of the right thumb. The thumb is morphologically normal, with a nontender palpable nodule at the base of the metacarpophalangeal joint. Clinical photographs are shown in the Figures below. Based on these findings, what is the treatment of choice?
Question 8
A 3-year-old boy had been treated with serial casting for a right congenital idiopathic clubfoot deformity. The parents are concerned because the child now walks on the lateral border of the right foot. Examination shows that the foot passively achieves a plantigrade position with neutral heel valgus and ankle dorsiflexion to 15 degrees. The forefoot inverts during active ankle dorsiflexion. Mild residual metatarsus adductus is present. Management should now consist of:
Question 9
What is the preferred treatment of a symptomatic curly toe deformity in a 6-year-old child?
Question 10
What zone of the physis is widened in rickets?
Question 11
Individuals presenting with a complete slip of one vertebra on the other are known to have a:
Question 12
Which of the following does not apply to the Wiltse’ classification of spondylolisthesis:
Question 13
Which of the following statements is least likely to provide us with an explanation, why the incidence of spondylolisthesis is less likely to occur at the lumbosacral junction, with respect to the L4-5 level:
Question 14
A slip due to degenerative spondylolisthesis, never exceeds:
Question 15
A mechanism or force resulting in an isthmic spondylolisthesis is most commonly in:
Question 16
Fractures through the proximal tibial apophysis in children (age 10 years) are most commonly a:
Question 17
Injury of the popliteal artery or its branches, following high energy fractures about the knee, occurs most commonly in which of the following locations:
Question 18
The mechanism of injury or force that would likely result in a proximal apophyseal injury (tibial tuberosity) in a 10 year old child would be:
Question 19
Traumatic dislocations of the patella have been associated with which of the following fractures of the patella:
Question 20
Plain radiography in a 13 year old girl diagnosed to have a triplane fracture of the ankle, would reveal:
Question 21
A 50 year old woman presents to your clinic having a bilateral mass (8X10 cms in diameter) located each beneath the inferior angle of both scapulae. Each of the masses becomes more apparent on internally rotating and adducting the corresponding arm, and by doing so, she has pain. Your most likely diagnosis would be:
Question 22
Following closed reduction and Hip spica application in a one year old girl, with bilateral dysplastic hips, the best imaging technique that would confirm the reduction would be:
Question 23
Which of the following conditions is least associated with the incidence of DDH in new borns:
Question 24
Which of the following innominate osteotomies listed below, follows the same principle as the Pemberton osteotomy, with less disturbances in growth of the tri-radiate cartilage:
Question 25
While performing an open reduction in a child with DDH, on exposing the acetabulum you note that the limbus is inverted and in the way of your reduction. Your next step would be, to:
Question 26
In a child aged 3 years with a unilateral high riding DDH, your best approach in management would be:
Question 27
Which of the following is a dynamic hareness used for reduction of a DDH, before the age of eight months:
Question 28
In a newborn with a moderate club foot deformity, which of the following deformities should be corrected last:
Question 29
A child presents to your clinic at the age of four months with the diagnosis of unilateral DDH. At this stage which of the following tests on examination is likely be present:
Question 30
Black stains have been noted on the articular surface of the alumina shell in alumina- alumina THA. These have been found to be due to:
Question 31
On comparing patients while performing a TKA where the patella was everted VS when not everted, the former was associated with a:
Question 32
A middle aged patient presenting with a well contained hemorrhage, surrounded by a pseudocapsule with no ecchymosis, most likely has a:
Question 33
Total shoulder arthroplasty is an especially difficult procedure, since optimal function after surgery requires a great deal of skill in the reconstruction and rehabilitation. Good and durable results would least depend on:
Question 34
The Tug test is used to locate which of the following structures during shoulder arthroplasty:
Question 35
The shoulder offset is measured from:
Question 36
The arc of active function of a normal knee ranges between:
Question 37
Quadriceps muscle relaxation during the stance phase “the arc of terminal extension,” occurs at:
Question 38
During weight bearing on a flexed knee (15°), the quadriceps muscle force required to stabilize the knee is:
Question 39
All the following are risk factors for limitation of motion of knee during ligamentoplasties, except:
Question 40
A test performed by having the patient clench his or her thumb in a fist, followed by brisk deviation of the wrist ulnarly, elicits pain over the first dorsal compartment of the wrist, is known as the:
Question 41
A number of factors have been implicated in the process in the development of osteonecrosis of the hip except: f- alcohol use g- high-dose corticosteroid administration h- coagulation abnormalities i- over-weight j- impaired mesenchymal cellular differentiation
Question 42
Alcohol and corticosteroids most likely induce osteonecrosis of the hip by:
Question 43
What should the “Kerboul angle” be in a patient with osteonecrosis of the hip, to favor a good prognosis:
Question 44
The most accurate imaging for detection of acute discitis in a child, would be:
Question 45
A 6 year old boy presents with acute pain in the cervical spine region. He was noted to have stiffness, and local tenderness in the cervical region and an elevated temperature (38.0 deg centigrade). Lab studies revealed, an increased sedimentation rate (35mm/1hr), and a WBC of 10000/ HPF, your most likely diagnosis would be:
Question 46
All the following favor the diagnosis of scheuermanns disease, except:
Question 47
Scheuermann’s disease of the thoracolumbar region has been associated has been associated mostly with which of the following conditions:
Question 48
Which of the following benign tumors is most likely to lead to a gradual replacement of the vertebral body and gradual weakening and could precipitate a sudden collapse of the vertebral body and bleeding, initiating the onset of pain, in a child:
Question 49
In children, the most common skeletal metastases to the spine, would be:
Question 50
The most common soft tissue tumor to metastasize to the spine, in a child would be: f- Synovial sarcoma g- Epithelioid sarcoma h- Rhabdomyosarcoma i- Liposarcoma j- Angiosarcoma